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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 19.06.2025 00:04

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

What is the belief about the existence of past lives and memories? Do we have knowledge of our past lives at birth or does it come back to us gradually?

You'll usually find your answer there.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

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If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

There's no rule.

Atheists who said that reading the Bible made them an atheist, how? Literally there are millions of people who read the Bible daily and still believe in God. So why say that? I mean unless you want to sound smart & edgy

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.